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I have:

Lemma 1$$ \vdash\psi\rightarrow(\lnot\psi\rightarrow\varphi) $$ We also have $$ \{\lnot\varphi\rightarrow\varphi,\lnot\varphi\}\vdash\varphi $$ and $$ \{\lnot\varphi\rightarrow\varphi,\lnot\varphi\}\vdash\lnot\varphi $$ Can anyone explain why this and the lemma gives $$ \{\lnot\varphi\rightarrow\varphi,\lnot\varphi\}\vdash\lnot(\varphi\rightarrow\varphi) $$

Logical axioms: $$ 1.\ \ \varphi\rightarrow(\psi\rightarrow\varphi) $$ $$ 2.\ \ (\varphi\rightarrow(\psi\rightarrow\chi))\rightarrow((\varphi\rightarrow\psi)\rightarrow(\varphi\rightarrow\chi)) $$

$$ 3.\ \ (\lnot\varphi\rightarrow\lnot\psi)\rightarrow(\psi\rightarrow\varphi) $$

Inference rule: $$ 4.\ \ MP $$

Proof lemma: By axiom 1 we have $$ \{\psi,\lnot\psi \} \vdash\lnot\varphi\rightarrow\lnot\psi $$ By axiom 3 we get

$$ \{\psi,\lnot\psi \} \vdash\psi\rightarrow\varphi $$

But then

$$ \{\psi,\lnot\psi \} \vdash\varphi $$

2 x the deduction theorem now gives the result.

  • How did Lemma 1 get proved? – Doug Spoonwood Aug 15 '18 at 17:15
  • see my adds - thanks – famfjord Aug 16 '18 at 10:44
  • You can substitute any wff for any variable provided that you do so uniformly (either on both sides of the $\vdash$ symbol or throughout the formula on the right hand side). So, you assume {¬φ→φ,¬φ}. What does using modus ponens lead to? What substitutions can you make in Lemma 1 which might lead to ¬(φ→φ)? – Doug Spoonwood Aug 16 '18 at 18:00

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