1

I can see that if $N$ is a group such that all $g \ne 1, g \in N$ have the same order, then this order is some prime $p$. Why is $N$ elementary abelian and of order $p^m$ for some $m$?

UbU
  • 29

2 Answers2

1

This is true for $p = 2$. Let $a$ and $b$ two elements, then $(ab)^2 = (ba)^2 = e$ which means $abab = baba$.

Then, $ab(ab ab) = ba b(a a)b \Rightarrow ab = ba(bb) = ba$.

Damien L
  • 6,649
0

As Tobias Kildetoft mentioned in his comment, this need not be true. However, it is true if we assume that $N$ is abelian.

Let $N$ be a finite group such that

  1. $N$ is abelian
  2. all elements of $N$ have the same order.

Just from premise 2. we can conclude that $N$ has prime power order. For suppose $p$ and $q$ were two distinct primes such that $p\mid |N|$ and $q\mid |N|$. Then Cauchy's theorem implies that there are elements of order $p$ and $q$ contradicting 2. Thus there can be at most one prime dividing the order of $N$.

Assuming $N$ is abelian, we can conclude from the fundamental theorem of finite abelian groups (to use a sledgehammer) that $N$ is isomorphic to a direct product of cyclic groups with prime power order. If any of the factor groups were a cyclic group of order $p^i$ for $i$ greater than 1, we would know that there was an element of order $p^i$. This contradicts 2. as Cauchy's theorem still implies that there is an element of order $p$.