This problem is from Spivak Calculus, now you immediately think $a^2 = \sqrt{2}$ and $a^4 = 2$, so the answer to the problem is yes. But, the way Spivak has developed his book:
- So far we only have the algebraic axioms (associativity, commutativity, units, inverses, distributivity).
- Significantly, we don't have the completeness axiom yet.
- We have already proved that if there is a number $x$ such that $x^2 = 2$ then $x$ can't be rational.
The important thing is that we haven't yet proved that such $x$ indeed exists (to prove this we need the completeness axiom, which we still don't have), only that if it happens to exist it should be irrational, thus I can't say that $\sqrt{2}$ is a solution to this problem just yet. Am I right or am I being just too picky?