Prove that there is no holomorphic function $f$ on the open unit disk such that $f(1/n)=2^{-n}$ for $n=2,3,..$
I know a similar question was asked on this website before but this is different.
I define $g(z)=2^{-\frac{1}{z}}$, Can I use this function and identity theorem to show that $f=g$ on the disk.
But $g$ is not analytic at $z=0$, so we get a contradiction?
Is there a loophole in my argument.
Edited the definition of function $g$