I know this has been asked before, but the answer provided contradicted what I've been taught. I've been taught that it is possible for a relation to be acyclic and complete without being transitive. Is there a simple counter example that I am missing? I've included the definitions provided to me below.
acyclic: $\forall x_1, x_2,...,x_n \in X, x_1Px_2, x_2Px_3... x_{n-1}Px_{n}$ implies $x_1Rx_n$
complete: $\forall x,y \in X, $ either $xRy$ or $yRx$
It appears to me that being acyclic directly implies transitivity once we assume completeness, as we can arbitrarily reduce the size of $X$ to show that $x_1Rx_{n-1}, x_1Rx_{n-2}... x_1Rx_{3}, x_1Rx_2.$
Any help explaining where my thinking is wrong is greatly appreciated.