A solution to a problem here is unclear to me :
The problem:
How long does it take $\$100$ to become $\$1000$ if invested at $10\%$ compounded quarterly?
His solution:
$A_0 = 100, A(t) = 1000, r = .1, n = 4$ \begin{align*} 1000 & = 100\left(1 + \frac{.1}{4}\right)^{4t}\\ 10 & = 1.025^{4t} && \text{use the change of base formula}\\ \log 10 & = \log 1.025^{4t}\\ 1 & = 4t\log 1.025 && \text{$\log 10 = 1$}\\ \frac{1}{4\log 1.025} & = t\\ t & = 23.31 \end{align*} It will take $23.3$ years to have $\$1000$ from the $\$100$ investment.
He says "Use the change of base formula". But where does the "change of base formula" happen?
I know the change of base formula is $$\log_a b = \frac{\log b}{\log a},$$ but I don't see it in his solution.