Let $b : [0,T] \times \mathbb{R}^n \rightarrow \mathbb{R}^n, \sigma : [0,T] \times \mathbb{R}^n \rightarrow \mathbb{R}^{n \times m}.$ Consider an SDE $$ dX_t = b(t,X_t)dt + \sigma(t,X_t) dW_t$$ Then a solution exists if the coefficients satisfy integrability and Lipschitz conditions and if $W$ is a $n$-dimensional Brownian motion.
My Question: Do we still have existence and uniqueness of a solution if we replace $W$ by $M = (B, \dots, B)$ with $B$ a Brownian motion.
(In this case $M$ is not a Brownian motion, because the components are not independent.)