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I am reading this article: http://arxiv.org/abs/1112.5037v1 . In this, it defines a symplectic manifold as a manifold equiped with a nondegenerate bivector field $\pi$ that is Poisson. l want to understand what is a bivector field on a manifold. I couldn't get a definition on manifolds. Thanks for your help.

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Let $M$ be a manifold. A vector field assigns for each point $m\in M$ an element of the vector space $T_mM$.

A bivector field should assign for each point $m\in M$ a bivector (or at least a pair of vectors) in the tangent space $T_mM$. As in the case of vector field, we want this choice of pair of tangent vectors to vary smoothly. To formalise this notion of smoothness, we see a bisector field from an alternate point of view.

Let $\pi$ be a bivector field.

Let $\omega\in \Omega^1(M)$ (a $1$-form on $M$).

Fix $m\in M$.

The $1$-form $\omega$ gives a map $\omega(m):T_mM\rightarrow \mathbb{R}$. The bivector field $\pi$ gives a pair of vectors $(v_1,v_2)$.

Evaluating $\omega(m)$ at $v_1$ gives $\omega(m)(v_1)\in \mathbb{R}$. This in turn gives an element $\omega(m)(v_1)v_2\in T_mM$. Note that $\omega(m)(v_1)$ is a real number and $v_2$ is an element in the vector space $T_mM$. Thus, for each $m\in M$, we have an element in the tangent space $T_mM$. We can ask if these tangent vectors vary smoothly to give a vector field. So, we get a map $\Omega^1(M)\rightarrow \mathfrak{X}(M)$. Starting at a decent map $\Omega^1(M)\rightarrow \mathfrak{X}(M)$, one can go backwards and produce a bivector field.

So, a bivector field can be seen as a nice map $\Omega^1(M)\rightarrow \mathfrak{X}(M)$.

Doing similar kind of manipulations one can see a bivector field as a nice map $\Omega^1(M)\times \Omega^1(M)\rightarrow C^\infty(M)$.

  • There are some gaps in the arguments. Please ask for clarification if anything is not clear. The best thing would be to go on and fix if you think some argument needs more explanation. I have made it community wiki for that purpose. – Praphulla Koushik Aug 05 '21 at 03:07
  • An n-vector field can be seen as an n-derivation. That is, an n-multilinear function on the product of $C^\infty(M)$ with itself n times, which satisfies the Leibniz rule on each component. Am I right? – Yamid Yela Aug 10 '21 at 23:12
  • Yes @YamidYela. – Praphulla Koushik Aug 14 '21 at 16:52