Given a measure space $(X, \mathcal F, \mu)$, it is always possible to construct a measurable mapping defined from some other measure space and with $X$ as its codomain, such that the measure induced by the mapping is the measure $\mu$ on the codomain.
Suppose we further require the measurable mapping to satisfy that given some subset $A$ of $X$ ($A$ is not necessarily measurable, i.e. may not be in $\mathcal F$), the mapping maps into $A$ a.e.. Then the existence of such a mapping requires that there exists a $B \in \mathcal F$ such that $B \subseteq A$ and $\mu(X - B) = 0$ (correct me if I am wrong). I was wondering if that necessary condition is also sufficient for existence of such a mapping?
Is it correct that existence of such a $B$ is completely determined by the measure space $(X, \mathcal F, \mu)$? Among all the measurable mappings that can induce $\mu$, either all of them map into $A$ a.e., or neither of them will map into $A$ a.e.? It is impossible that some of them map into $A$ a.e. and some don't?
As an example and also source of my above question, let's look at construction of a Brownian motion:
Given finite dimensional distributions of a Brownian motion, there exists a unique probability measure $P$ on the sample path space $\mathbb{R}^T$ where $T:=[0, \infty)$ with its Borel sigma algebra, by Kolmogorov extension theorem.
A Brownian motion also requires its sample path to be continuous a.e.. Is existence of a Brownian motion equivalent to that the set $A$ of continuous functions from $T$ to $\mathbb{R}$ contains a subset which has probability $1$ under $P$? (Note $A$ is not measurable wrt the Borel sigma algebra over $\mathbb{R}^T$.)
Is it possible that there exists a stochastic process with $P$ being its law, but not continuous a.e.?
Thanks and regards!