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This question sounded a bit foolish to me, but at the same time, a bit intriguing if nothing else.

Given any arbitrary number $a$ and $c$ where $a≠c$, the set containing all numbers on the interval $[a, a+c]$ contains infinitely many numbers.

Can a number Φ exist such that $0<Φ<c$ and the set containing all numbers on the interval $[a,a+Φ]$ contains only $a$ and $a+Φ$, or would that by definition only include $a$? I remember reading this somewhere but did not understand it at the time. I only recently remembered it.

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