I am trying to understand the definition of ordered pairs. The book I am studying is elements of set theory from Enderton.
In the axiomatic approach to set theory, it seems that you start with a primitive notion, followed by axioms, and from there you can use logical deductions to determine properties, theorems etc.
I posted a question Why do definitions need to be 'proved' to work? and the answers were very helpful. I know understand why showing the defined object exists is necessary.
However I am now confused by the notion of 'order' in defining the ordered pair. Both in the book and on wikipedia, sets (and elements) are the only primitive notions that are used to develop the entirety of set theory. In this sense, when we define an ordered pair, it must be a construct from some object that is itself a set, which we have with:
$$\langle x,y\rangle := \{\{x\},\{x,y\}\}$$
Here the ordered pair is defined to be the set on the right hand side. I can follow and accept this. What I am failing to wrap my head around is that there is an assumed sense of order. What I mean by this is we assume that $$\langle a,b\rangle := \{\{a\},\{a,b\}\}$$
while $$\langle b,a\rangle := \{\{b\},\{b,a\}\}$$
My issue here is that in writing out the right hand side of the equations, we looked into the object we defined $\langle x,y \rangle$, used the order in which its members appeared, and then filled in the right hand side.
I'm sure this seems incredibly trivial and silly, but to me I don't understand why there is this assumed sense of 'order' that can be derived from the object. It wasn't a primitive concept, and it was never really defined. So is 'order' simply an intuition? Is it so fundamental that it is silly to consider it further? Or is it simply an implied primitive concept?
Cheers in advance.