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I'm getting some trouble with the following question. I will use the common notation $z=x+iy$.

It is well-known that $f(z)=e^{-z}$ tends to zero when $x$ tends to $+\infty$, since $\vert f(z) \vert =e^{-x}$. Of course, the same happens for the family of functions $f_{\lambda}(z)=e^{-\lambda z}$ where $\lambda >0$ is a positive parameter. In fact, if $\lambda$ is bigger, the decay is faster.

My question is if it is possible to find a (non identically zero) $\textbf{holomorphic}$ function (in the right half plane) that decays faster than any function $f_{\lambda}$. In mathematical terms, the question is if we can find an $\textbf{holomorphic}$ function $g \neq 0$ (in the right half plane) such that for any sequence $x_n+i y_n$ such that $x_n$ goes to $+\infty$, we have that the limit $$g(x_n+iy_n) \cdot e^{\lambda (x_n + i y_n)}$$ tends to zero for any $\lambda >0$. Informally, when we go to the right in the complex plane (ignoring if $y$ changes or not) we must decay faster than any exponential.

Remark: If $g$ is not required to be holomorphic the answer is trivially "yes". You just make $g(z)$ a function of its real parts (just depending on $x$) in a way that in the interval $[n,n+1]$ $g$ decays as $e^{-n}$.

DCao
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  • What about $e^{-z^2}$? – b00n heT Oct 03 '18 at 10:42
  • Its module is equal to $e^{-x^2+y^2}$ which does not go to zero if $y=x$ and $x$ goes to infinity. However, probably, I should make this clear in the question (that $y$ can change also$), because I think I did not wrote it properly. – DCao Oct 03 '18 at 10:44
  • Yup. Write it properly and we’ll help :) – b00n heT Oct 03 '18 at 10:45
  • I think now it is OK. Essentially, the question is if you can find an holomorphic function that decays faster than any exponential when going to the right in the right half plane, but when you go to the right ($x$ growing) the $y$ could change arbitrarily. So I stated everything in terms of sequences to make it more clear. – DCao Oct 03 '18 at 10:58
  • I can’t look into it right now. But you may want to exclude the trivial counterexample $f(z)\equiv 0$. – b00n heT Oct 03 '18 at 11:05
  • Yes, sure. Thank you again. – DCao Oct 03 '18 at 11:05

1 Answers1

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I thought the answer should be yes, but, at least if we assume in addition that $f$ has no zero, it's no. (It seems clear to me that allowing zeroes can't really matter, but I haven't worked out the details. In any case, this shows that the obvious way to construct a counterexample, setting $f=e^g$ where $g$ is such that whatever, cannot work. Also for example $1/\Gamma(z)$ can't work, clarifying the status of the example given in another answer.)

Note first I'm going to talk about the upper half-plane $\Pi^+$ instead of the right half-plane, because I'm more familiar with a few technicalities in that context.

First,

We may assume that $|f(z)|<1$ for all $z$.

Because if $f\in H(\Pi^+)$ and $f(x+iy)\to0$ super-exponentially as $y\to\infty$ then in particular there exists $y_0>0$ so that $|f(x+iy)|<1$ for $y>y_0$; now if $g(z)=f(z+iy_0)$ then $|g|<1$ in $\Pi^+$ and also $g(x+iy)\to0$ super-exponentially.

And now

Surprise If $f\in H(\Pi^+)$, $|f|<1$ and $f$ has no zero then there exists $\lambda>0$ such that $|f(iy)|\ge e^{-\lambda y}$ for all $y>1$.

Proof: We have $f=e^{-(u+iv)}$ where $u$ and $v$ are real-valued harmonic functions and $u>0$.

Now it's very well known that a positive harmonic function in the unit disk is the Poisson integral of a measure on the boundary. A conformal mapping suffices to derive the perhaps less well known corresponding fact for the upper half plane:

Lemma If $u>0$ is harmonic in $\Pi^+$ then there exist a constant $A\ge0$ and a (regular Borel) measure $\mu$ on $\Bbb R$ such that $\int\frac{d\mu(t)}{t^2+1}<\infty$ and $u(x+iy)=Ay+\int\frac{y\,d\mu(t)}{(x-t)^2+y^2}$.

If $y>1$ then $\frac{y}{y^2+t^2}<\frac{y}{1+t^2}$; hence $$u(iy)\le\lambda y\quad(y>1),$$where $$\lambda=A+\int\frac{d\mu(t)}{t^2+1}.$$

Comment on removing the assumption that $f$ has no zero: If $|f|<1$ but we do not assume $f$ has no zero then $f=gB$, where $|g|<1$, $g$ has no zero, and $B$ is a Blaschke product. Since $|g(iy)|\ge e^{-\lambda y}$ for $y>1$ we only need to show that $B(iy)$ cannot vanish super-exponentially. This seem pretty clear to me, but the details might be a little fussy; first we have to figure out exactly what a Blaschke product looks like in $\Pi^+$.