0

Prove using mathematical induction:

$$\forall n \ge 1, \sum _{i=1}^n \frac 1 {i^2} \le 2$$

I have seen this problem from the note of CS70 which is Berkeley's discrete math course. This problem illustrates strengthening the induction hypothesis. First, we can not prove that using induction, but then the note tells that we can prove that is less than $2-\frac 1 n$, so my question is how can we think about the question from proving it less than 2 to less than $2- \frac 1 n$? Thanks for your help!

amWhy
  • 209,954
  • You want to prove a stronger statement, but you also have a stronger hypothesis in the induction step. – Michal Adamaszek Oct 04 '18 at 11:43
  • Clearly having the idea is a long shot, but that's what mathematics is all about: having the good idea for the right situation.

    Obviously you cannot do any induction if you were using $\leq 2$ as the induction step fails.

    I tried coming up with why $\frac1n$ could be a reasonable choice, but had no luck.

    – b00n heT Oct 04 '18 at 12:00

2 Answers2

2

Since $a_n=\sum_{k=1}^{n}\frac{1}{k^2}$ is obviously an increasing sequence (I prefer to avoid the letter $i$ as a summation index, since it can be easily mistaken with the imaginary unit) it is enough to show that $\zeta(2)=\sum_{n\geq 1}\frac{1}{n^2}$ is less than two. Fourier theory ensures that $$\frac{\pi-x}{2}=\sum_{n\geq 1}\frac{\sin(nx)}{n}$$ for any $x\in(0,2\pi)$, with such identity holding uniformly over compact subsets of $(0,2\pi)$. Since $$ \int_{0}^{2\pi}\sin(nx)\sin(mx)\,dx = \pi \delta(m,n)$$ we have $$ \int_{0}^{2\pi}\left(\frac{\pi-x}{2}\right)^2\,dx = \pi \zeta(2)$$ and the given claim is equivalent to $$ \int_{0}^{2\pi}(\pi -x)^2\,dx = 2\int_{0}^{\pi}(\pi -x)^2\,dx = 2\int_{0}^{\pi}x^2\,dx < 8\pi $$ or to $$ \pi < 2\sqrt{3} $$ which is equivalent to the perimeter of the regular hexagon circumscribed to a unit circle is greater than the perimeter of the unit circle. This follows from the fact that if $A,B$ are bounded convex sets in $\mathbb{R}^2$ with $B\subsetneq A$, then $\mu(\partial B)<\mu(\partial A)$.

Jack D'Aurizio
  • 353,855
  • I think this is a great answer that provides insight into this bound, instead of blind logical or algebraic manipulation. Maybe the post will benefit from a bit of "headlining", otherwise I wonder how many people might not read to the end. – Lee David Chung Lin Oct 05 '18 at 10:34
1

Prove by induction that $\sum_{i=2}^n\frac{1}{i(i-1)}=1-\frac{1}{n}$ so $\sum_{i=1}^n\frac{1}{i^2}\le 2-\frac{1}{n}$.

J.G.
  • 115,835