Although the CDF can have jumps, it's still helpful to make some sketches where it IS continuous and realize that $F_X^{-}$ in that case is exactly the inverse mapping of $F_X$ (the curve is flipped with respect to the diagonal line). Thus we know this is essentially that well-known transformation in disguise.
Now formally, just plugin the definition (allow me to alter the notations to make the distinction explicit)
$$
\Pr(X \leq t ) = \Pr\left( F_{X}^{-}(U)\leq t \right) = \Pr\bigl( \min\left\{y: F_{X}(y) \geq U \right\} \leq t \bigr) \label{Eq_1} \tag*{Eq.(1)}
$$
which literally translates to "$t$ is larger than such $y$", where we have $y$ satisfying $F_{X}(y) \geq U$. With such $y$ being the minimal among those values, we have
$$ \left. \begin{aligned}
F_{X}(y) &\geq U \\
t &\geq y
\end{aligned} \right\} \implies F_{X}(t) \geq U ~,\qquad \text{or} \quad U \leq F_{X}(t)$$
because by definition any CDF is non-decreasing (including discontinuous ones).
Therefore, continuing \ref{Eq_1}
\begin{align}
\Pr(X \leq t ) &= \Pr\bigl( \min\left\{y: F_{X}(y) \geq U \right\} \leq t \bigr) \\
&= \Pr\bigl( U \leq F_{X}(t) \bigr) \\
&= F_{X}(t)
\end{align}
because $U$ has a uniform distribution.
So we have proved that $X$ has a CDF of $F_X$. I hope this argument is rigorous enough for you.