In an article I am writing I wrote:
'The expression
$$\mu = \frac{1}{1 - \exp(\lambda)} + \frac{1}{\lambda}$$
does not have a pleasant inverse giving us an expression for $\lambda$ in terms of $\mu$. However, [some stuff on the quality of the approximation $\lambda \approx 1/\mu$ on the domain we are interested in]'
My co-author pointed out that 'pleasant' does not sound very scientific and that we should use 'closed-form' instead. This seems fair enough, but when making the correction I started to doubt if it is true and if there really isn't some sort of complicated closed-form inverse involving Lambert-W-functions or similar.
And then I thought: well if anyone can answer that, it is the nice people at MSE! So, I would be really greatful if someone can confirm and/or deny that there is no closed form expression of $\lambda$ in terms of $\mu$ given the above relation.