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How to prove $\sum_{I=1}^{n}a_{I}^{2}$ given constraints that $\sum_{I=1}^{n}a_{I}$ = 1 is larger than or equal to $\sum_{I=1}^{n}(\frac{1}{n})^{2}$?

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hint: Use the inequality: $(1\cdot a_1+1\cdot a_2+\cdots +1\cdot a_n)^2 \le (1^2+1^2+\cdots+1^2)(a_1^2+a_2^2+\cdots +a_n^2)$ known as Cauchy-Schwarz inequality.

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