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Is $$\cot x = \tan \Big(\frac{π}{2} - x\Big)$$ true even when $x$ is not an acute angle ?

anonymous
  • 601

3 Answers3

2

True for all $x$ for which $\cot(x)$ is defined since

$\tan(\frac{\pi}{2}-x)=\frac{\sin(\frac{\pi}{2}-x)}{\cos(\frac{\pi}{2}-x)}=\frac{ \sin (\frac{\pi}{2}) \cos (x) -\cos( \frac{\pi}{2}) \sin (x)}{ \cos( \frac{\pi}{2}) \cos (x)+\sin (\frac{\pi}{2}) \sin (x) } =\frac{ \cos x }{ \sin x}= \cot (x).$

BR Pahari
  • 2,694
2

It's TRUE if $x\neq k\pi ,\ k\in \Bbb Z $, according to following equation: $$\cot x= \frac{\cos x}{\sin x}=\frac{\sin(\frac{\pi}{2}-x)}{\cos(\frac{\pi}{2}-x)}=\tan\Big(\frac{\pi}{2}-x\Big) $$

Y.Wu
  • 29
-2

It is an identity by definition.. yes, it is true for all arguments.

Narasimham
  • 40,495