Question is in the title. It appears obvious at first glance, but I've got no idea how to prove it.
Edit: I am referring to the Riemann integral.
Asked
Active
Viewed 143 times
0
-
Riemann or Lebesgue Integral? – clm Oct 25 '18 at 05:27
-
What is the context? Is it a Riemann integral or a Lebesgue integral? What attempt have you made to answer the question? – Kavi Rama Murthy Oct 25 '18 at 05:27
-
Go to the definition of the integral and see what you can determine – Dean C Wills Oct 25 '18 at 05:40
-
1I gave two solutions here: https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/2233400/the-properties-of-integral/2233507#2233507 – Mark Pineau Oct 25 '18 at 05:41
-
@MarkPineau: your solution assumes continuity of $f$ which is not the case here. – Paramanand Singh Oct 26 '18 at 12:31
-
For my first solution I nowhere assume $f$ is continuous, only that it is Riemann integrable and bounded, with $f(x)\geq 0$. (The second solution, however, does). – Mark Pineau Oct 27 '18 at 01:09