Find the line by a given point $(1, 2, 3)$, the line has common points with $\frac{x}{2}=\frac{y+1}{-2}=\frac{z-2}{1}$ and $\frac{x}{4}=\frac{y+2}{0}=\frac{z}{3}$
What am I doing wrong?
I decide to give a line as an intersection of two planes. A plane can be defined by a line and a point that is not on that line.
Consider a plane defined by $(1, 2, 3)$ and $\frac{x}{2}=\frac{y+1}{-2}=\frac{z-2}{1}$. If $\frac{x}{2}=\frac{y+1}{-2}=\frac{z-2}{1}$ lies in the plane, then the plane's normal vector can be any vector that is orthogonal to $\{2, -2, 1\}$; for example, $\{2, 1, -2\}=\{A, B, C\}$. Using $Ax+By+Cz+D=0$, we get $2x+y-2z+2=0$.
Consider a plane defined by $(1, 2, 3)$ and $\frac{x}{4}=\frac{y+2}{0}=\frac{z}{3}$. Analogically, we get $3x+y-4z+7=0$.
The answer in the book is $\begin{cases} 5x+y-8z+17=0 \\ 12x+9y-16z+18=0 \end{cases}$ , which didn't confuse me (an infinite number of intersecting planes can give a single line) until I saw that the direction vectors of my answer and the book's answer don't match. In fact, the direction vector of my answer is $\{2, -2, 1\}$, which is just the first line from the exercise.
I suspect I went astray with the second line, but maybe the entire reasoning is wrong.
Thank you.