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If $f:[a,b] \to \mathbb{R}$ is continuous and increasing, then the inverse $f^{-1}$ exists and

$$\int_a^b f(x)dx + \int_{f(a)}^{f(b)} f^{-1}(x)dx = f(b)b - f(a)a.$$

This is obvious by looking at a graph where the integrals are areas of regions that cover a rectangle of area $f(b)b$ with a rectangle of area $f(a)a$ removed.

I recall this is proved rigorously using integration by parts but I can't reconstruct the proof. Can anyone please help?

WoodWorker
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1 Answers1

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Hint:

$$I=\int f^{-1}(x)dx$$ $x=f(u)\Rightarrow dx=f'(u)du$: $$I=\int f'(u)\cdot (f^{-1}\circ f)(u)du$$ $$I=\int uf'(u)du$$ Integration by parts: $$dV=f'(u)du\qquad U=u\\V=f(u)\qquad dU=du$$ $$\therefore I=UV-\int VdU$$ $$\therefore I=uf(u)-\int f(u)du$$ $$\therefore I=xf^{-1}(x)-(F\circ f^{-1})(x)+C$$ You can go from here

clathratus
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