If $f:[a,b] \to \mathbb{R}$ is continuous and increasing, then the inverse $f^{-1}$ exists and
$$\int_a^b f(x)dx + \int_{f(a)}^{f(b)} f^{-1}(x)dx = f(b)b - f(a)a.$$
This is obvious by looking at a graph where the integrals are areas of regions that cover a rectangle of area $f(b)b$ with a rectangle of area $f(a)a$ removed.
I recall this is proved rigorously using integration by parts but I can't reconstruct the proof. Can anyone please help?