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Problem Prove or disprove the following:

Let $f : X \to X$ be a continuous function from a complete metric space $(X, d)$ into itself such that $d(f(x), f(y)) < d(x, y)$ whenever $x\neq y$. Then $f$ has a fixed point.

A fixed point of a function is an element of the function's domain that is mapped to itself by the function.

Attempt If we define $f(x)=x+\frac{1}{x} $ with domain in $ [1,\infty )$ then $d(f(x),f(y))<d(x,y)$. Then we can easily see that $f$ hasn't fixed point.

Is it correct enough?

Don't confuse with @Darman's answer. Actually that was my previous attempt.

@Darman's answer is perfectly correct.

Integrand
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Unknown
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  • Could you explain it? – Unknown Nov 12 '18 at 02:28
  • Questions which simply pose a problem without substantial context are often closed. You might share your motivation/interest in the problem, or explain the difficulty you encountered in trying to solve this yourself. There are many other ways to add context, but the important point is to show "research effort" went into the post. – hardmath Nov 12 '18 at 02:29
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    Try $f(x) = x+1/x$ on $[1,\infty)$. – Robert Israel Nov 12 '18 at 02:29
  • Yes. Since In a metric space very convergent sequence is Cauchy. So, That sequence converges to a point and that point is fixed point. Am I right?? – Unknown Nov 12 '18 at 02:45
  • It is true if $X$ is compact but as the A below shows, not true in general. – DanielWainfleet Nov 12 '18 at 06:38

2 Answers2

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No. With your assumption your state isn't true.

If you define $f(x)=x+\frac{1}{x} $ with domain in $ [1,\infty )$ then $d(f(x),f(y))<d(x,y)$, because

$|x+\frac{1}{x}-y-\frac{1}{y}|<|x-y| \Leftrightarrow|\frac{yx^2+y-xy^2-x}{xy}|<|x-y| \Leftrightarrow \frac{|xy(x-y)-(x-y)|}{|xy|}<|x-y| \Leftrightarrow |(xy-1)||x-y|<|xy||x-y| \Leftrightarrow |xy-1|<|xy| \Leftrightarrow -1<0$

So this function have the assumption but if $f(x_0)=x_0$,

$x_0+\frac{1}{x_0}=x_0 $ and this is a contradiction

Darman
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  • We can also observe that if $1\leq x<y$ then there exists $z\in (x,y)$ with $\frac {|f(x)-f(y)|}{|x-y|}=$ $=|f'(z)|=1-\frac {1}{z^2}<1$.................+1 – DanielWainfleet Nov 12 '18 at 06:35
  • I noticed that if $X$ is not compact and $0<k<1,$ it is possible that $d(f(x),f(y))<k\cdot d(x,y)$ for all $x,y$ and that $f$ has no fixed point. – DanielWainfleet May 27 '20 at 03:23
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To add on to @Darman's answer, here's another counterexample to the claim.

Let $X = \{ \text{partial sums of the harmonic series}\} = \left\{ 1, 1 + \frac12, 1+\frac12 + \frac 13, \dots \right\} \subseteq \mathbb R$ with the usual metric.

This space is complete: We know that any subset of $\mathbb R$ is complete iff it is closed. So suppose $(x_n)$ is a sequence in $X$ with $x_n \to x \in \mathbb R$. Then $x_n$ must be bounded, so it can sample only finitely many elements of $X$ (since the harmonic series diverges). Take $\varepsilon$ less than the minimal distance between any two of the finite set of elements, and we get that $x_n$ must in fact be eventually constant. So $x \in X$ and $X$ is closed.

Next let $f: X \to X$ simply map one element to the next, i.e. $1 \mapsto 1 + \frac 12, 1 + \frac 12 \mapsto 1 + \frac 12 + \frac 13$, etc. (check $f$ continuous!). We have $$ |x - y| = \sum_{n = M+1}^N \frac 1n \implies |f(x) - f(y)| = \sum_{n = M+1}^N \frac 1{n+1} < |x - y|, $$ so indeed $d(f(x), f(y)) < d(x, y)$ is satisfied for any $x \neq y$. But it's clear that $f$ has no fixed point.

When you're constructing the set $X = \{S_1, S_2, \dots \}$ with such a sequence $(S_n)$, one really important thing to take note of is that you want $$ \sup_{n\in \mathbb N} \frac{d(f(S_n), f(S_{n+1}))}{d(S_n, S_{n+1})} = 1, $$ for if you could find a $\lambda \in [0, 1)$ s.t. $d(f(x), f(y)) \leq \lambda d(x, y)$, then the contraction mapping theorem says that $f$ does have a fixed point. Indeed, in this example, $$ \frac{d(f(S_n), f(S_{n+1}))}{d(S_n, S_{n+1})} = \frac{n+1}{n+2} \uparrow 1 \quad \text{as } n \to \infty, $$ which is really nice, so it is not as arbitrary as it may initially seem.

It is useful to note that if you replace "complete" with "compact" (or, equivalently in $\mathbb R$, "sequentially compact") in the statement, then the claim would be true. See this post.