Sigmoid function is defined as $\frac{1}{1+e^{-(x+y)}}$.
Is there a property for sigmoid such that
$\frac{1}{1+e^{-(x+y)}}=$ sigmoid$(x)$ {some operation} sigmoid$(y)$ ?
Edit:
According to this link it is not. However, is there any way that I can approximate them such that they are almost equal to the original one.
Edit 2: If I use taylor series, how can I make it distributive?
