The question is:
Give a formal proof for the following statement: Given a matrix A and a scalar c, show that rank(cA) = rank(A)
Here are the steps that I took to go about the proof:
(1) Prove this claim: Let v1, v2, ..., vN be vectors
then {v1, v2, ..., vN} is linearly independent <==> {c* v1, c*v2, ..., c * vN} is also lin. ind.
I don't type out the whole thing here, but the proof is trivial by playing around with the coefficients
(2) Let (c * A_ij) where i = 1, 2, ..., m; and j is fixed where j belongs to {1, 2, ..., n} denotes a linearly independent column in matrix cA
(3) Then I let S = { (c * A_ij)} be the set of all linearly independent columns in matrix cA, where each element of S satisfies (2)
(4) By how I define the set S, all elements in S are lin. ind. columns in matrix cA.
Then I use the claim (1) to say that columns A_ij of matrix A must also be lin. ind.
I also note that by definition of the rank, it's the maximum number of lin. ind. columns (or rows) in a matrix. So I think rank(cA) is basically the cardinality of the set S. Then by (4), I conclude that when I "move" from each lin. ind. column of matrix cA to each lin. ind. column in matrix A, I didn't change the number of lin. ind. columns. Thus, rank(cA) = rank(A).
Would someone please help me check if there is anything missing or wrong in my proof ? Somehow I feel a bit shaky on how I define the indices for the linearly independent columns in matrix cA. Thank you very much ^_^