The sum $$\sum\limits_{r=1}^{n} (r^2+1)(r!)$$ is equal to:
- $(n+1)!$
- $(n+2)!-1$
- $n\cdot(n+1)!$
- $n\cdot(n+2)!$
My work. I tried to solve this problem by converting $(r^2+1)$ in squares then applying the property but i was unable to get the solution, please help?