Suppose $C$ is a free chain complex over a PID $R$, and $H(C)$ is finitely generated. From the universal coefficient theorem, there is a short exact sequence: $$ 0 \rightarrow \text{Ext}^1_R(H(C), R) \rightarrow H(C^*) \overset{h}{\rightarrow} \text{Hom}_R(H(C), R) \rightarrow 0. $$ My question is, is the following homomorphism $$ \bar{h}: H(C^*)/\text{(tor)} \rightarrow \text{Hom}_R(H(C), R)$$ an isomorphism?
A torsion $[f] \in H(C^*)$ is annihilated by $h$, since if there is an $a \in R$ such that $a[f] = 0$, then $$ah([f])([z]) = a\left< [f], [z]\right> = \left< a[f], [z]\right> = 0,$$ so $h([f]) = 0$ and the map is well-defined. On the other hand, from the structure theorem, we may write $$H(C) \cong R^r \oplus_i R/(a_i)$$ and we have $$\text{Hom}_R(H(C), R) \cong \text{Hom}_R(R^r, R) \oplus_i \text{Hom}_R(R/(a_i), R) \cong R^r$$ and $$\text{Ext}_R(H(C), R) \cong \text{Ext}_R(R^r, R) \oplus_i \text{Ext}_R(R/(a_i), R) \cong \bigoplus_i R/(a_i)$$ so we have $$H(C^*) \cong R^r \oplus_i R/(a_i).$$
So we can say that $\text{Ext}_R(H(C), R)$ is (abstractly) isomorphic to the torsion submodule of $H(C^*)$, but not canonically as discussed in this question.
Thanks in advance.