If $f(x)$ is a defined in $[0,1]$ such that $\displaystyle \int^{1}_{0}(f(x))^2\,dx=4$
and $\displaystyle \int^{1}_{0}f(x)\,dx=\int^{1}_{0}x\cdot f(x)\,dx=1,$
then what is the value of $\displaystyle \int^{1}_{0}(f(x))^3\,dx?$
Try: First thing in my mind is to use the Cauchy-Schwarz Inequality for Integrals:
$$\int^{1}_{0}x^2\,dx\cdot \int^{1}_{0}\left(f(x)\right)^2dx\geq \left(\int^{1}_{0}xf(x)dx\right)^2.$$
But here the inequality condition is not satisfied.
I did not understand how I think other way could help me to solve it.