I have been given a problem to translate into a linear model.
The relevant part to my question is: we're given $ \{{ 1,..., m}\}$ robots to work on $\{ 1,...,n \} $ products
- each robot $i$ takes time $a_{ij}$ to complete his task on product $j$
- each robot $i$ has a life time $b_i$
- if the robot $j$ is employed in producing $j$ we'll incur in a cost $c_{ij}$
- each product $j$ can be sold at a price of $p_j$
- a net income of $B$ must be achieved
The task is to make the production uniform (i.e. maximizing the least produced product).
Now, calling $x_{ij} \in \mathbb{R}^+ \cup\{0\}$ the amount of $j$ produced by $i$ and $y_{ij} \in \{ 0,1 \} $ the variable indicating "$x_{ij}>0$" this is what I've come up with:
$\max v$
$\text{s.t.}:$
- $v \leq x_{ij}$ $\forall (i,j) $, to ensure $v$ is the minimum
- $\sum _j a_{ij} x_{ij} \leq b_i$ $\forall i $, to guarantee that each robot's capacity is not exceeded
- $\sum_jp_j\sum_ix_{ij}-\sum_{i,j}c_{ij} y_{ij} \geq B$, minimum net income
- $x_{ij} \leq \frac{b_i}{a_{ij}} y_{ij} $ $\forall (i,j) $, to translate $x_{ij} > 0 \implies y_{ij}=1$
- *
where $v \in \mathbb{R}^+ \cup \{0\} $
Now, instead of * I'd like to include a constraint for which $x_{ij} =0 \implies y_{ij}=0$. In the solutions I've been provided with this is not included, and I'm wondering why: if * is not present then $y_{ij} = 1 $ $\wedge $ $x_{ij}=0$ would be admissible, and we could be paying more than we're actually paying.
Why is it correct to formulate the model without * ?
Thanks in advance!