If $\tan 2\alpha\cdot\tan \alpha = 1$, then what is $\alpha$?
I tried two methods but got two different answers.
Method 1:
$$\begin{align} \tan 2\alpha\cdot\tan \alpha = 1 &\implies \frac{2\tan \alpha}{1 - \tan ^2 \alpha}\;\tan \alpha = 1 \tag{1a}\\[6pt] &\implies 2\tan ^2\alpha = 1 - \tan ^2\alpha \tag{1b}\\[6pt] &\implies \tan ^2 \alpha = \frac{1}{3} \tag{1c}\\[6pt] &\implies \tan \alpha = \pm\frac{1}{\sqrt 3} \tag{1d}\\[6pt] &\implies \tan \alpha = \tan\left(\pm\frac{\pi}{6}\right) \tag{1e}\\[6pt] &\implies \alpha = n\pi \pm \frac{\pi}{6} \;\text{where}\; n \in \mathbb{Z} \tag{1f} \end{align}$$
Method 2: $$\begin{align} \tan 2\alpha \cdot \tan \alpha = 1 &\implies \tan 2\alpha = \frac{1}{\tan \alpha} \tag{2a}\\[6pt] &\implies \tan 2\alpha = \cot \alpha \tag{2b}\\[6pt] &\implies \tan 2\alpha = \tan\left(\frac{\pi}{2} - \alpha\right) \tag{2c}\\[6pt] &\implies 2\alpha = n\pi + \frac{\pi}{2} - \alpha \text{?} \tag{2d}\\[6pt] &\implies \alpha = \frac{1}{3}\left(n\pi + \frac{\pi}{2}\right)\;\text{where}\; n \in \mathbb{Z} \tag{2e} \end{align}$$
Which one is correct? Is there any mistake in the above solutions?
$\implies$to obtain $\implies$; type$iff$to obtain $\iff$. – N. F. Taussig Jan 14 '19 at 02:23