Euler-Lagrange equation
$$\frac{\partial f}{\partial y}-\frac{d}{dx}\frac{\partial f}{\partial y'} = 0$$
Can also be written as
$$f'_y-f''_{xy'}-f''_{yy'}y'-f''_{y'y'}y''=0$$
In my book it is provided as a self-evident fact. It is not evident to me at all. Please help me with the derivation, I have no idea where to even start