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Suppose we have a Banach space $X$ and its dual $X^{'}$. Then the duality pairing is often written $$\langle f,v\rangle_{X^{'},X} = f(v)$$

for $f \in X^{'}$ and $v \in X$. But is it allowed to write

$$ \langle v,f\rangle_{X,X^{'}} $$ to mean $\langle f,v\rangle_{X^{'},X}$?

In the setting of a Hilbert space $H$, for a given linear operator $A:H\to H^{'}$, I saw $A$ being self-adjont is written as

$$ \langle Av,u\rangle = \langle v,Au\rangle $$

Does $\langle v,Au\rangle$ here actually mean $\langle Au,v\rangle= Au(v)$?

SvanN
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tgtt
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  • It's just a convention, there's no mathematics reason why you can only write $\langle v,f\rangle$ but not $\langle f,v\rangle$ and vise versa. You just need to be consistence. – BigbearZzz Jan 17 '19 at 19:03

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