I have a question about an proof in Milnor's TOPOLOGY FROM THE DIFFERENTIABLE VIEWPOINT (see pages 65-66): The aim is to show the classifying theorem that any smooth, connected $1$-dimensional manifold is difeomorphic either to the circle $S^1$ or to some interval of real numbers.
In order to show it the author uses following lemma:
Here the proof with red tagged argument which isn't clear to me:
We take the graph $\Gamma \subset I \times J$ consisting of all $(s,t)$ with $f(s)= g(t)$ ($f, g$ parametrisations; for the notation: see above)
My questions are following:
Why $\Gamma$ is closed in $I \times J$? (my considerations: I guess that because for small enough open $U \subset M$ the diagonal of $U \times U$ is closed (since $M$ Hausdorff) and $\Gamma$ is just it's preimage. Is the argument ok?)
Why the lines of $\Gamma$ cannot end in the interior $\mathring{I} \times \mathring{J}$? Why does the fact that $g^{-1} \circ f$ is a local isomorphism exclude it?

