${P(A}{\cup}{B}{\cup}{C)}={P(A)+P(B)+P(C)}-{P(A{\cap}B)}-{P(A{\cap}C)}-{P(B{\cap}C)}+{P(A{\cap}B{\cap}C)}$
Proof:
${P(A{\cup}B{\cup}C)}={P(A{\cup}(B{\cup}C))}$ Associativity
${P(A{\cup}(B{\cup}C))}={P(A)+P(B{\cup}C)-P(A{\cap}(B{\cup}C))}$ Well-known theorem
${P(A{\cap}(B{\cup}C)=P(A{\cap}B){\cup}P(A{\cap}C)}$ Distributive
Now I should apply the well-known theorem again.
${P(A{\cap}B){\cup}P(A{\cap}C)=P(A{\cap}B)+P(A{\cap}C)-P((A{\cap}B){\cap}P(A{\cap}C))}$
I'd be finished if I could show this:
${P((A{\cap}B){\cap}P(A{\cap}C))}=P(A{\cap}B{\cap}C)$
Which I could easily justify using a Venn Diagram (which is not acceptable). How else could I do this?
EDIT: The duplicate question doesn't help me. The answer says "and since (A∩C)∩(B∩C)=A∩B∩C, the result is proven." but this is not explained and I DONT want to use a Venn Diagram.