Let $<a_0;a_1,a_2,\dots>$ be an infinite sequence of integers such that $$0<n\implies a_n>0.$$
For any natural $n$ we know there exists a convergent: one rational number $r_n$ such that it is equal to the simple continued fraction $$r_n=a_0+\frac{1}{a_1 +\frac{1}{a_2 +\frac{1}{\ddots_{a_n+0}}}}$$ $r_n$ is the number given by the finite continued fraction of the original sequence truncated at $n$, $<a_0;a_1,a_2,\dotsm,a_n>$.
The question is: given any sequence of positive integers, does the simple continued fraction always converge to a real number?