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Kind of a weird question but where does the $\in$ symbol come from exactly and where do we imbue this symbol with any kind of meaning?

As far as I can tell it isn't a symbol that is part of the alphabet when it comes to propositional logic or first order logic. It just sort of pops out of nowhere when you get to something like the axioms of ZFC or set theory where we start saying things like $a \in S$ without really discussing what this symbol means or how you use it appropriately.

We all know it means "element of" but is there a more formal basis for its definition? Is there some kind of rule or axiom that shows how this syntax is meant to be used somewhere? I am coming at this from the perspective of syntax and semantics if that helps. Please note I am not asking about the history of the symbol $\in$.

For example let's say I start throwing around $a★b$ or $a★S$ in my syntax, you'd go, whoa, wait a second, I don't know what that symbol means or what we're allowed to do with it or how we're supposed to use it. Where would I "point you" to show these things?

  • The symbol is convenient. We've an ordered pair (a,S). Ordered pairs form relations. Though, if you really want to dig into it, I think it's referred to as a primitive predicate. We can't strictly call it a relation since relations are sets which rely on this functionality of containing elements. – AlvinL Jan 25 '19 at 14:53
  • I did catch a lecture of F. Schuller https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=AAJB9l-HAZs&index=2&list=PLPH7f_7ZlzxTi6kS4vCmv4ZKm9u8g5yic where he calls it a 'fundamental relation' and he emphasises there is no definition of epsilon. At any rate, the series is very interesting to watch. – AlvinL Jan 25 '19 at 15:06
  • Thanks. For my own reference... he begins saying this at 1:53 in that video. So it's a relation but not one that's actually defined anywhere? Just taken as obvious? I feel like this makes it a particularly odd kind of symbol since every other symbol I've run into so far has some kind of definition or highly generalized syntax showing how it is used. – user638203 Jan 25 '19 at 15:08
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    To be clear, I'm not asking about the history of the symbol itself. This question is definitely not a duplicate. – user638203 Jan 25 '19 at 15:32
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    I have to agree with OP here, this is definitely not a duplicate of the linked question. – Gregory J. Puleo Jan 25 '19 at 15:46
  • This isn't a duplicate. It's mostly asking about how the relation "is an element of" is/was defined. – timtfj Jan 25 '19 at 16:02
  • My apologies for accidentally kicking this off in the wrong direction (history of the symbol rather than the concept). – timtfj Jan 25 '19 at 16:04
  • @MauroALLEGRANZA I probably should have tagged you in my earlier comment about this question – Gregory J. Puleo Jan 25 '19 at 18:52
  • "where does the ∈ symbol come from ?" Simple question... simple answer. From the language of set theory. It is the "universal language" of modern math. – Mauro ALLEGRANZA Jan 25 '19 at 19:35
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    @MauroALLEGRANZA That's the question in the title, but the question in the body is mainly about defining "element of". The linked question asks only about the history of the symbol, so isn't equivalent. – timtfj Jan 25 '19 at 19:41
  • "As far as I can tell it isn't a symbol that is part of the alphabet when it comes to propositional logic or first order logic." CORRECT; it is part (the main one) of the mathematical theory of sets. – Mauro ALLEGRANZA Jan 25 '19 at 19:42
  • The syntax is defined in every elementary textbook about set theory. – Mauro ALLEGRANZA Jan 25 '19 at 19:43
  • It seems like you're asking multiple questions at once but it's hard to tease them apart because you don't have the same context as people who are responding to you. Which of these do you care about?: 1. "Where is the syntax for a binary relation(-like) symbol defined?" 2. "Where is it said that $\in$ is a binary relation(-like) symbol?" 3. "Where is the meaning of $\in$ written, in the sense of what proofs using it would be valid?" 4. "How do logicians formally define the semantics of something like $\in$?" 5. "Where is the special use with a quantifier like $\forall x\in S$ defined?" – Mark S. Jan 26 '19 at 02:32
  • @MarkS.Honestly, all of it – user638203 Jan 26 '19 at 18:05
  • The most satisfactory formal definition I've seen that's supposed to encapsulate what $\in$ is intended to mean is $\textrm{Eps}$ here: http://matwbn.icm.edu.pl/ksiazki/fm/fm98/fm9818.pdf#page=3, roughly "equal to something directly contained in the set on the RHS" – C7X Mar 20 '22 at 02:46

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Propositional logic contains only propositional connectives $\land, \lor,\ldots$ and propositional variables. You are correct that it does not have the symbol $\in$.

First-order logic (sometimes called predicate logic) has a number of basic symbols: variables, propositional connectives, quantifiers, and (usually) $=$ for equality. However, one of the most important things about first-order logic is that you can add optional symbols to represent functions, predicates/relations, and constants.

For instance, the axioms of group theory can be stated within the first order language containing the extra symbols $\{\times, {}^{-1}, e\}$ (indeed, you actually only need $\times$).

When we are dealing with logic we need to be careful to not confuse the syntax of our system with its semantics. Syntactically, $\in$ is just a symbol that we can take or leave in any particular language. This symbol does not need to refer to set membership; it doesn't even need to be a binary relation! I could interpret $\in$ as anything that the logic lets me: a constant, a relation of any arity, or a function of any arity.

The "meaning" of the symbol $\in$ isn't really a question for logic. We have, as a mathematical community, decided that $\in$ denotes set membership. It is very convenient in mathematics to be able to talk about collections of objects, so the symbol is used a lot. However, the question of what $\in$ "really means" is similar to what $0$ "really means": these are questions that are more of metaphysics. There may be some people who claim that they have no notion of "set" or "collection". To these skeptics, talking about ZFC might not be too helpful. To people who do have a notion of "set" we can ask the question of whether particular claims are try about their idea of set. Most of the mathematical community have agreed that sets (whatever they are) satisfy ZFC.

James
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  • If $\in$ is considered a first-order relation symbol, how exactly are relation symbols defined? For example we could write $a = b$ or $a \leq b$ and these would also be relations, but we still need to show what these symbols mean and how they're used. I imagine $a \in S$ is another arbitrary relation symbol but much like the others I don't really understand where relations are hashed out further. – user638203 Jan 25 '19 at 15:25
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    I don't know what you mean by saying we "need to show what they mean". FOL doesn't put any onus on you to do anything at all. $\leq$ is actually an excellent case because that symbol is used to denote a number of different kinds of structures depending on context: sometimes it means partial order, sometimes it means linear order, sometimes it means quasi-order and so on.

    Syntactically, a binary relation is literally just a symbol that has two places for you to plug terms into. If you're concerned about meaning (or semantics) then you need to tell us what counts (for you) as a definition.

    – James Jan 25 '19 at 15:31
  • I guess my question is "where are binary relations actually defined? To which framework do they belong? Their syntax? Semantics?" We can introduce a symbol but we have to show and define how the symbol is actually used somewhere, do we not? – user638203 Jan 25 '19 at 15:34
  • For example let's say I start throwing around $a ★ b$ in my syntax, you'd go, whoa, wait a second, I don't know what that symbol means or what we're allowed to do with it or how we're supposed to use it. Where would I "point you" to show these things? – user638203 Jan 25 '19 at 15:41
  • In logic, the syntax of a binary relation symbol has been described in this answer and the comment by @James. In set theory, the general concept of a binary relation between two sets $A,B$ is just a subset of $A \times B$. In specific examples, binary relations are defined by specific formulas or statements. For example, in the axiomatic development of the real numbers, after axioms of addition, multiplication, and positivity have been written down, the relation $s \le t$ is defined by the statement ``the sum of $t$ and the additive inverse of $s$ is positive''. – Lee Mosher Jan 25 '19 at 15:41
  • Well, when we are doing logic we maintain a distinction between what we are studying (the object language) and how we are studying it (the metalanguage). We define what for a symbols of the object language to be (say) a binary relation in the metalanguage. We assume that everyone is fluent in the metalanguage. So, when I define binary relation to you, I have to assume you know what $2$ is. You are actually incorrect that we need to "know what to do with a symbol". Certainly, if you want to prove useful things about $\star$, then some axioms would help. However, you could add it to your ... – James Jan 25 '19 at 15:43
  • ... language without any axioms. You wouldn't be able to prove may things about $\star$, but nothing incorrect has happened. Think about group theory. Do you think that it fully describes $\times$ and what you can do with it? Because it not the case that we can prove or disprove every statement of group theory from the axioms. – James Jan 25 '19 at 15:45
  • @James I don't know anything about group theory unfortunately so the analogy is lost on me, but I don't understand the rest of the comment still. Are you saying that all semantics are ultimately metalanguage and not really part of the formal system? – user638203 Jan 25 '19 at 15:47
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    I'm sorry my example isn't in your wheelhouse. The semantics of FOL are (somewhat) determined by FOL. For instance, $a \land b$ is true if and only if $a$ is true and $b$ is true. The semantics of any of the bonus vocabulary is not fully determined by FOL alone. The statement $x\in y$ can be either true or false depending on what $x$, $y$ and $\in$ mean. However, the statement $x)\in yz$ doesn't have a truth value at all because it isn't a well-formed part of the language. – James Jan 25 '19 at 15:51
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It was originally the Greek lower case epsilon ($\epsilon$). If you read really old math papers/books you will still see a lower case epsilon used instead of the stylized $\in$ symbol.

According to this page, the notation was invented by Peano from the first letter of the Greek word "είναι" meaning "is."

As for the definition of $\in$, it is defined by the axioms of ZFC. The axioms themselves tell you what it means and how to use it properly.

kccu
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  • I feel like ZFC's axioms just show it being used in very specific contexts, rather than a general "here's how it's used" sort of deal. For example where would $\exists x \in S, F(x)$ come from? – user638203 Jan 25 '19 at 15:06
  • Take as an example "$\exists n \in \mathbb{N}, n \text{ is prime}$". This comes from a combination of definitions, logical deduction, and the axioms of ZFC. What is $\mathbb{N}$? You need to define it using the axioms of ZFC (see: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Set-theoretic_definition_of_natural_numbers). What is a prime? You need to define it in terms of sets. Then the statement can be proved. But nobody really does math this way; nobody thinks of natural numbers as sets. – kccu Jan 25 '19 at 15:16
  • "nobody thinks of natural numbers as sets" Aren't the ordinals a way to define natural numbers as sets? The Von Neumann stuff? – user638203 Jan 25 '19 at 15:19
  • It doesn't really matter whether natural numbers are sets in these examples, only that they're elements. They could be urelements. As long as they're not proper classes, we should be OK. – J.G. Jan 25 '19 at 15:22
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    The point of the ZFC axioms, like any set of axioms, is to (attempt to) write down the rock bottom minimal collection of properties of $\in$, from which anything you want to know about $\in$ can be deduced. – Lee Mosher Jan 25 '19 at 15:35
  • I will amend my statement and say many mathematicians do not think of natural numbers as sets when they are doing mathematics. – kccu Jan 25 '19 at 15:37
  • @LeeMosher I mean, I imagine that is technically the answer to my question, I just struggle to see how when the ZFC axioms look like relatively complex/complicated first order statements, whereas I often see $\in$ used in very simple ways that don't match the way the axioms look. – user638203 Jan 25 '19 at 15:39
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    What you call "simple" ways of using $\in$ perhaps are really specific theorems of set theory which have been proved starting from the ZFC axioms. What you think looks relatively complicated is the outcome of the attempt, as I repeat (with emphasis added) to write down a rock bottom minimal set of axioms from which ALL of set theory can be deduced. – Lee Mosher Jan 25 '19 at 15:48
  • @LeeMosher I would agree / I understand the reasoning behind that, I just can't seem to find any clear / concrete examples of how you get from A to B here. For example let's say I write $\forall x \in \mathbb{N}, x + 1 > 0$. How would I reduce this to the ZFC axioms? Or does this end up being a very complicated multi-step procedure? – user638203 Jan 25 '19 at 15:52
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    For that, read the first comment of @kccu above. To repeat what he says: starting from the axioms of ZFC you have to define $0$ and $1$ and $\mathbb N$, then you have to define $+$, and then $<$, and then you're ready to start proving $\forall x \in \mathbb N$, $x+1 > 0$. If you want to know the specifics of that example, it's in textbooks. – Lee Mosher Jan 25 '19 at 15:55
  • @LeeMosher Just fyi the proper pronouns for kccu are she/her/hers, and unless you know better it's fair to err towards "they". – James Jan 25 '19 at 15:58
  • Right, so right there, when you say "then you have to define +" or "<" etc, how/where are we defining these exactly, and are we doing the same thing for $\in$ somewhere? Maybe my question is more broadly "how/where are we defining binary relations and how to use them"? – user638203 Jan 25 '19 at 15:58
  • How we define things depends on context. We have an intuitive notion of what $+$ and $<$ mean that comes from school. If you want to prove things about actual-plus and actual-less-than, then it helps to have a more rigorous framework. The Peano axioms for $\mathbb{N}$ define $+$ by primitive recursion: $x + 0 = x$ and $x + (y + 1) = (x + y) + 1$. One way to define $<$ is "$x < y$ if $y-x$ is positive" but then you need to know what positive and subtraction means, so instead you go with "$x < y$ if there exists $z \neq 0$ s.t. $x + z = y$". You can "go deeper" if you like, but you don't have to – James Jan 25 '19 at 16:08
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    To repeat, if you wish to know how $\mathbb N$ and $+$ and $<$ are defined starting from ZFC then you can work your way from the first comment of @kccu to the wikipedia link found there and further into textbooks. On the other hand, $\in$ is not defined starting from ZFC, it is instead axiomatized by ZFC. – Lee Mosher Jan 25 '19 at 16:12
  • @LeeMosher I am very confused by this comment. Are you saying $\in$ shows up somewhere "before" ZFC? Or that it shows up for the first time in the axioms of a set theoretic framework like ZFC and it's not given any other kind of equivalent representation other than how we see it used in the axioms explicitly / syntactically? – user638203 Jan 25 '19 at 22:07
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    The axioms of a group do not define a group operation, instead they axiomatize it. The axioms of Euclidean geometry do not define lines and points, instead they axiomatize them. The axioms of set theory do not define the $\in$ relation, instead they axiomatize it. Think about group theory, Euclidean geometry, set theory, they all work in that same, similar manner. The common feature is that when a concept is axiomatized, we have listed a minimal set of properties from which we allow ourselves to prove general theorems regarding that concept. – Lee Mosher Jan 25 '19 at 22:35
  • @LeeMosher I can't tell if this is a confirmation / rejection of my previous comment. Did I have the right idea, or still off? – user638203 Jan 25 '19 at 22:40
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Based on the comments, I think user638203 is looking for a lot of information/context, and a fully complete answer would probably require information from many courses/books on logic and related theoretical "computer science". I'm just going to provide a little information and clarification so that they (and anyone else interested) can do some further reading/research.


How is the syntax for a binary relation(-like) symbol defined?

This is actually more complicated than one might hope, and sources differ.

Before I mention any technical details/terminology, I just want to present one option as a basic intuitive idea. If we want $\star$ to act syntactically like a binary relation between things of a certain type (I mean this very informally), then we might make a rule like this: if "$a$" and "$b$" are placeholders for valid objects of the relevant type (whatever that means in context), then "$(a\star b)$" is a thing you can write that has a truth value. For example, if we're already comfortable with standard set theory symbols, and we want $\star$ to act syntactically like a relation between sets, then if $x$ stands for a set, maybe we can write something like "$\left(((x\cup x)\star x)\land (x=x)\right)$", which might be true/provable or not depending on $x$ and any rules about $\star$.

If you want to make this more formal, this sort of thing is described (semi-)formally in most treatments of logic, as described in the syntax section of the Wikipedia page for first-order logic. Unfortunately, most treatments don't talk about infix notation for relation symbols, so we'd be forced to write things like "$\star(a,b)$" (and "$\in(a,b)$"?) if we followed a random book on logic strictly.

If you want to handle infix notations and make the syntax very formal, arguably to a degree not explicitly spelled out even in many texts on mathematical logic, you would use some approach to specifying formal grammars, like BNF. You would have to very carefully specify things like "these strings are atomic for specifying these types of objects" (whether they be strings that stand for sets, or for propositions that could have a truth value, etc.), and "these are the valid ways to build bigger strings of various types from smaller ones".

But in practice, in mathematics, we often set up precedence rules (rarely considered in discussions of formal grammars), drop parentheses, and allow ambiguous and/or invalid expressions with meaning determined by context and unwritten convention. For example, maybe a math book would use "$a\in b\in c$" in some context to mean something like "$\left((a\in b)\land (b\in c)\right)$", but maybe no book on logic/set theory would ever explicitly write something like that as a rule.


Where is it said that $\in$ is a binary relation(-like) symbol?

Often, when discuss formal mathematics we say what it means for something to be a "(well-formed) formula" (abbreviated "wff"). In a treatment of set theory, (syntactically) valid usage of $\in$ will be mentioned very early on. For example,


What about the use of $\in$ with quantifiers?

In an expression like "$\exists x\in S$" or "$\forall x\in S$", the subexpression $x\in S$ does not really have its other conventional meaning (syntactically or semantically, across all treatments of set theory). Generally, one or both of these is taken as an abbreviation. Formulas like $\exists x\in S, \varphi(x)$ abbreviate something like $\exists x,\left(x\in S\land\varphi(x)\right)$. And formulas like $\forall x\in S, \varphi(x)$ abbreviate something like $\forall x,\left(x\in S\rightarrow\varphi(x)\right)$. However, I'm having some trouble finding a source that is very explicit about these abbreviations or similar. Two sources that get close are Hammack's Book of Proof and ProofWiki.

In Book of Proof, it says "Likewise, a statement such as 'There exists a subset $X$ of $\mathbb N$ for which $|X|=5$.' can be translated as '$\exists X,(X\subseteq\mathbb N)\land(|X|=5)$' or '$\exists X\subseteq\mathbb N,|X|=5$' or '$\exists X\in\wp(\mathbb N), |X|=5$'." and "The following statements mean the same thing: '$\forall x\in S,Q(x)$' '$(x\in S)\Rightarrow Q(x)$'."

In ProofWiki, they explain a different abbreviation. It says "In the language of set theory, this can be formally defined: $\forall x \in S: P(x) := \left\{x \in S: P(x)\right\} = S$" on the universal quantifier page. And it says "In the language of set theory, this can be formally defined: $\exists x \in S: P(x) := \left\{x \in S: P(x)\right\} \ne \varnothing$" on the existential quantifier page.


Where is the (proof-based) meaning of $\in$ written?

One definition of the "meaning" of $\in$ would be something like the collection of statements involving $\in$ that are provable. This boils down to the question of which proofs using $\in$ are valid.

Informally, you can pick your favorite account of axioms for set theory (e.g. the ones on Wikipedia) and then read/write proofs building up from there, in your favorite informal written style. You'll get different provable statements depending on which axioms you choose (e.g. do you want the continuum hypothesis or the axiom of choice to be provable?).

But if you want to be extra careful and rigorous, then you'll need to pick a particular formal way of writing and checking proofs (a proof system). A detailed account of many options is probably too much for any single whole book, so I'll just give an idea of what's out there. For example, you might choose fitch-style proofs for (some particular author's account of) natural deduction. Or a Hilbert-style system using starting with modus ponens as the sole inference rule, and Meredith's axiom to handle propositional logic and your favorite axiom (schemes) for quantifiers, such as Q5-7 on Wikipedia.

how we're supposed to use it. Where would I "point you" to show these things?

To emphasize: In any case, the axioms of set theory say which statements involving $\in$ can be used as a foundation for proofs about sets. Those axioms are what you would point me to.


What about the formal semantics of $\in$?

The informal semantics are discussed all over the place. You said, "We all know it means "element of"".

One formal way to discuss the "semantics" (in the philosophy sense) of something is to talk about "syntactic consequence". This basically means "which proofs are valid?" (we push around logical symbols on a "syntactic" level), and I discussed this above. But there's also "semantic consequence", which basically talks not about proofs, but about objects/"possible worlds" (sometimes called models) that satisfy the axioms with and without certain properties.

My favorite example to explain things like this is via Group Theory, which you said you're unfamiliar with. We can instead talk about propositional logic. We can explain how $Q$ follows from $P$ and $P\to Q$ in two very different ways. One way is to say "We have a proof-writing rule of inference called modus ponens which says $Q$ is provable if we have $P$ and $P\to Q$." That's what it means for $Q$ to be a syntactic consequence of $P$ and $P\to Q$.

Another way to argue is to say something like "Consider all possible worlds: The worlds where $P$ is false are not under discussion since we're supposed to have $P$. The worlds where $P$ is true but $Q$ is false are not under discussion since we're supposed to have $P\to Q$. The only worlds left are those where $P$ is true and $Q$ is also true. In particular $Q$ is true in all the worlds under discussion." This is what it means for $Q$ to be a semantic consequence of $P$ and $P\to Q$. If this seems weird, it's exactly the sort of thing we do when we use truth tables to argue something. We basically make a table of all the possible worlds.

The limitation of standard truth tables is that they can't handle quantifiers. To talk about models (possible worlds) with quantifiers, we need something like set theory. For example, a linguist might translate "every dog barks" to something like "every thing (in the possible world under discussion) that's in the set of dogs, is a thing that barks". This works very naturally for many things in math (e.g. the set of integers and the set of rational numbers are both models for some rules of arithmetic), and is discussed in "model theory".

But for $\in$, it's a little confusing. The axioms that say what we do with $\in$ are axioms for a system of set theory. So to have sets to serve as models for that, we'd need to already have some foundational/meta set theory we're working with. This is exactly what's done and it's important mathematics. I don't have an easier source that spells this out than the beginning of Timothy Chow's A beginner's guide to forcing.

Mark S.
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Put simply in the language of set theory we start with atomic formulas $$(x\in y)$$ or $$(x=y)$$ where $x$ and $y$ are variables.

Then we expand the definition of formulas to so that it is closed under $$\neg(\cdot)$$ and $$(\cdot)\wedge(\cdot)$$ and $$(\exists x)(\cdot)$$ where $x$ is a variable.

Then we introduce the following notations.

$$(\varphi\vee\psi)\equiv\neg(\neg\varphi\wedge\neg\psi)$$ $$(\varphi\Rightarrow\psi)\equiv\neg\varphi\vee\psi$$ $$(\varphi\Leftrightarrow\psi)\equiv(\varphi\Rightarrow\psi)\wedge(\psi\Rightarrow\varphi)$$ $$(\forall x)\varphi\equiv\neg(\exists x)\neg\varphi$$

We take variables, punctuations, $=$, $\in$, $\neg$, $\wedge$, $\exists$ as primitive notions. That is to say, they are undefined symbols which are informally trying to capture the notion of variables, punctuations, equality, membership, negation, conjunction, existential quantifier. Establishing a collection of axioms is how we try to capture desired notions.

Let me speak in the language of set theory:

$$(\exists x)(\neg(x=x))$$

What I just said is false because of established axioms of set theory; most popular being $\mathsf{ZFC}$.

Now I'm going to say something else:

$$(\forall y)(\exists x)(y\in x)$$

What I just said is true because of established axioms of set theory. Intuitively it is true because for each set $y$, define $x:=\{y\}$ the singleton containing $y$ and it follows that $y\in x$.

The following may be useful to know in general: Let $\varphi$ be an arbitrary formula. Then certain variables within $\varphi$ are "free." We typically denote those variables by writing $\varphi(x_1,\ldots,x_n)$ instead of simply $\varphi$.