Propositional logic. Given two sets of wffs, $\Sigma$ and $\Gamma$, are the following definitions of equivalence between $\Sigma$ and $\Gamma$ .....equivalent?
$(\Sigma\vDash\Gamma)\land(\Gamma\vDash\Sigma)$
For all $\alpha$, $(\Sigma\vDash\alpha)\leftrightarrow(\Gamma\vDash\alpha)$
I'm not looking for a proof, a just want to avoid engaging myself in a lost battle.