Consider a random variable $X$ with the log-normal pdf $f(x) ={1\over \sqrt{2π}}x^{−1}exp^{{−0.5 (logx)^2}}$, $x>0$.
a) Find the mean and the variance of $X$.
I know that $\int_0^\infty f(x) dx=1$, but this says "consider the random variable $X$ with the log-normal pdf" so would I actually be integrating $\int_0^\infty x f(x) dx$ for the mean? The reason I ask (and I'm skeptical) is because the solution to that integral is disgusting and has $i$ in the solution and that doesn't seem to be applicable for what I'm doing. Any help is greatly appreciated.