Given $$e^{\textbf{i}\theta}=cos(\theta) + \textbf{i}sin(\theta) \ \ \ \ (1)$$ and $$e^{-\textbf{i}\theta}=cos(\theta) - \textbf{i}sin(\theta) \ \ \ \ (2)$$ To find $sin(\theta)$ first you should perform:
$$\frac{e^{\textbf{i}\theta}-e^{-\textbf{i}\theta}}{2}=\textbf{i}sin(\theta) \ \ \ \ (3)$$
The seemingly obvious thing to do would then be to just "divide" the $\bf{i}$ over to get $\frac{1}{\textbf{i}}\frac{e^{\textbf{i}\theta}-e^{-\textbf{i}\theta}}{2}=\frac{e^{\textbf{i}\theta}-e^{-\textbf{i}\theta}}{2\textbf{i}}$ (which is the answer I'm working toward). But that introduces a scalar (1) dividing a bivector ($\textbf{i}$). How can you just divide a scalar by a bivector?
UPDATE
Despite the help given here in the comments, I've managed to find an answer. It is a simple answer:
Following $(3)$, the next step would be to product both sides of the equation by $-\textbf{i}$ on the left giving $$-\textbf{i}\frac{e^{\textbf{i}\theta}-e^{-\textbf{i}\theta}}{2}=sin(\theta) \ \ \ \ (4)$$ Then all there is to note is that $\frac{1}{\textbf{i}}$ is simply an abbreviation for $-\textbf{i}(=\textbf{i}^{-1})$. With that in mind, $(4)$ becomes $$\frac{e^{\textbf{i}\theta}-e^{-\textbf{i}\theta}}{2\textbf{i}}=sin(\theta) \ \ \ \ (5)$$