Using the addition theorem for $\tan $ you get
$$
\frac{\tan(x) +\tan(100^\circ)}{1 - \tan(x) \tan(100^\circ)}=\frac{\tan(x) - \tan(50^\circ)}{1 + \tan(x) \tan(50^\circ)}+\tan(x)+\frac{\tan(x) + \tan(50^\circ)}{1 -\tan(x) \tan(50^\circ)}
$$
Let $y= \tan(x)$, then this is
$$
\frac{y +\tan(100^\circ)}{1 - y\tan(100^\circ)}=\frac{y- \tan(50^\circ)}{1 + y \tan(50^\circ)}+y+\frac{y + \tan(50^\circ)}{1 -y \tan(50^\circ)}
$$
Clearing denominators gives
$$
0 = - (y +\tan(100^\circ))(1 -y^2 \tan^2(50^\circ))+(y -\tan(50^\circ))(1 -y \tan(50^\circ))(1 - y\tan(100^\circ))\\
+y (1 -y^2 \tan^2(50^\circ))(1 - y\tan(100^\circ)) + (y +\tan(50^\circ))(1 +y \tan(50^\circ))(1 - y\tan(100^\circ))
$$
Multiplying out gives
$$
0 = -\tan^2(50) - 2 y \tan(100) (1 + \tan^2(50)) + y^2 (-1 - 3 \tan^2(50)) + y^4
$$
With some help of Wolframalpha, the only positive solution to this fourth order equation is $\tan x= y \simeq 1.90326$ or $x \simeq 62.28^\circ$ or $x \simeq 0.346 \pi \simeq 1.087$ (in radians). I wonder if this "fits" to something special.
The only negative solution is $\tan x= y \simeq -1.73205$ which gives $x \simeq 120^\circ$. Now this can be verified to be exactly $x =120^\circ$ since indeed, using the original equation,
$$
\tan(220^\circ)=\tan(70^\circ)+\tan(120^\circ)+\tan(170^\circ)
$$
holds.
Though this treatment is sort of ugly, it has the advantage that it shows the only two solutions to the problem.