Explain why $\sqrt{x^2-y^2}+\arcsin(x/y)=0$ does not define $y$ as an implicit function of $x$.
Quite confused by this, mainly because I do not fully understand really what it means for an equation to define $y$ as an implicit function of $x$ even though I kind of get the idea.
I think the reason is something to do with the fact that the first term requires $|x|\ge|y|$ and the second term the opposite but I would appreciate if someone would explain this to me a bit more clearly, thanks.
Edit: Sorry I messed up the question it was meant to be a minus in the root.
$\arcsin \left( \frac xy \right)$to obtain $\arcsin \left( \frac xy \right)$. – For the love of maths Feb 02 '19 at 02:52