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When $X\sim N(m,\operatorname{sig}^2)$, i.e. a normal distribution with mean "$m$" and standard deviation "$\operatorname{sig}$" with probability distribution function $($PDF$)~f_{X}(x)$, how can I compute the following integral:

Integral of $\displaystyle\int_{-\infty}^0 \exp(rx)\cdot f_{X}(x)\mathrm dx$

P.S. The answer should be $f\left(\exp\left(mr + \frac{r\cdot\operatorname{sig}^2}2\right)\right)$ . $F\left(-m - \frac{r\cdot(\operatorname{sig}^2}{\operatorname{sig}}\right)$ where $F$ is the standard normal distribution $N(0,1)$.

Kenta S
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    Hint: complete the square in the exponent. – Robert Israel Feb 06 '19 at 17:49
  • Welcome to Math StackExchange! Please use MathJax (https://math.stackexchange.com/help/notation) for all mathematical expressions. Also, please describe your attempt at solving the problem. – Swapnil Rustagi Feb 06 '19 at 18:03
  • In the line where I specified the answer the argument for F() is "(-m-r.(sig^2))/sig", that is \frac{numerator}{denominator} = \frac{-m-r.(sig^2}{sig} – darkblue80 Feb 07 '19 at 18:12

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