Apparently, the denominator of a Bernoulli number is always an even integer. Where does this come from?
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1What is your definition of the Bernoulli numbers? – Brevan Ellefsen Feb 07 '19 at 15:22
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This follows from the Von Staudt–Clausen theorem which states that for even Bernoulli numbers $B_{2n}$ (odd ones are almost all 0) we have
$$ B_{{2n}}+\sum _{{(p-1)|2n}}{\frac 1p}\in \mathbb{Z } $$
hence for $p = 2$ we have $p - 1 = 1$ which divides all $2n$ so $\frac1p$ always appears on the sum, hence the denominator of $B_{2n}$ must be divisible by 2 or else the total would not be an integer.
Maybe there is a simpler way but this theorem is a very general tool for understanding denominators of Bernoulli numbers.
Alex J Best
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