Please prove $n! > \left(\frac{n}{3}\right)^n$ is true, without using mathematical induction. I've proved it using mathematical induction, but our teacher asked us to derive it using limits $n$ pre-calculus. I tried, but I'm stuck.
Asked
Active
Viewed 114 times
4
-
2It would help a lot, if you could show exactly what you have tried and where you are stuck. – rtybase Feb 13 '19 at 09:56
-
2Are you supposed to know about Stirling approximation ? – Claude Leibovici Feb 13 '19 at 09:57
-
2@NitinJha Also related is this question. – Toby Mak Feb 13 '19 at 10:05
-
It seems to me that any proof will use induction at least implicitly... – Servaes Feb 13 '19 at 10:22
-
1Please show us your proof by induction, I am really curious. – Wolfgang Kais Feb 13 '19 at 11:55
1 Answers
3
Okay , now I have got it. $$ \frac {n!}{(n/3)^n} = 3^n \frac {n(n-1)(n-2)....}{n.n.n....} = 3 \left( 3- \frac {3}{n} \right) \left( 3- \frac {6}{n} \right) \left( 3- \frac {9}{n} \right) …… $$ If $n$ be a natural number, then the RHS is clearly more than 1 , hence the result.
Edit
The general factor is, $$ \left( 3- \frac {3k}{n} \right) $$ It is obvious that whether $n→0$ or $n→∞$, the product tends to infinity, i.e. the function $\frac {n!}{(n/3)^n}$ grows monotonically. In case $n=1$, the result is trivial. Hence the result.
Awe Kumar Jha
- 1,162
-
1No, it is not clear that the RHS is greater than 1 when written in this way. – Joce Feb 13 '19 at 10:57