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I have to prove or disprove:

For any $n \in \mathbb{N}$, for any $r_1,r_2,\ldots, r_n \in R$ such that $\forall i, 1 \leq i \leq n, r_i > 0$ and such that $r_1 r_2 \cdots r_n = 1$, if there is an $i$, $1 \leq i \leq n$ such that $r_i < 1$, then there exists a $j$, $1 \leq j \leq n$ such that $r_j > 1$.

Hi if i can get some help for this one here please I'm new to discrete math sorry for my lack of knowledge thank you.

TenaliRaman
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NaiMomo
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1 Answers1

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if we suppose that for each $j$, $1 ≤ j ≤ n$ with $j≠i$, then we have $r_j ≤ 1$ . given that $\forall j$ ${r_j>0}$
we can conclude that $r_1 × r_2 × ... × r_n ≤ r_i <1$ . contradiction.