I have to prove or disprove:
For any $n \in \mathbb{N}$, for any $r_1,r_2,\ldots, r_n \in R$ such that $\forall i, 1 \leq i \leq n, r_i > 0$ and such that $r_1 r_2 \cdots r_n = 1$, if there is an $i$, $1 \leq i \leq n$ such that $r_i < 1$, then there exists a $j$, $1 \leq j \leq n$ such that $r_j > 1$.
Hi if i can get some help for this one here please I'm new to discrete math sorry for my lack of knowledge thank you.