I'm trying to show that any subset bounded of $\Bbb{R}^k$ is totally bounded.
Here is what I did:
(1)A subset of a totally bounded Set is bounded:
Proof: Let $X$ be a totally bounded subset and $Y\subset X$ then there exists an $\epsilon /2$-net $\{x_1,x_2,..,x_n\}$ and $X\subset \displaystyle\bigcup_{i=1}^n B(x_i,\epsilon/2)$ . Let $\{x_1,x_2,..,x_m\}$ be the points whose balls contain $Y$ $(m\le n)$. Now $\forall i \in \{1,..,m\} \exists q_i \in A \cap B(x_i,\epsilon/2) $ and $B(x_i,\epsilon/2)\subset B(q_i,\epsilon)$. We have for every $x\in B(x_i,\epsilon/2)$ $$ d(x,q_i)\le d(x,x_i)+d(x_i,q_i) < \frac \epsilon 2 + \frac \epsilon 2 =\epsilon$$
Hence $Y \subset \displaystyle\bigcup_{i=1}^m B(x_i,\epsilon/2) \subset \bigcup_{i=1}^m B(q_i,\epsilon)$ and $q_i \in Y$ for all $i$ hence $Y$ is totally bounded
Back to the problem:
Let $A \subset \Bbb{R}^k$ be a bounded set then $A \subset B(0,R)$ for some $R$ then $A \subset [-R,R] \times [-R,R] \times ...\times [-R,R] $ then $A$ is a subset of a compact set by the Heine-Borel Theorem which is also a totally bounded set, hence by (1) $A$ is totally bounded.
I'm trying to do this problem by only using (1) without invoking the Heine-Borel theorem, can anyone tell me how that can be done? (Is the proof of (1) right for that matter?)