If I have two concatenated paths $f_{1} \cdot g_{1}$ and $f_{2} \cdot g_{2}$ where $f_{1} \cong f_{2}$ and $g_{1} \cong g_{2}$, is it fair to say
$$f_{1} \cdot g_{1} \cong f_{2} \cdot g_{2}$$
by the homotopy $(f \cdot g)_{t} = (1-t)(f_{1} \cdot g_{1})+t(f_{2} \cdot g_{2})$?