I'm trying to understand the calculation of $$Var \left (\int_{a}^{b} r_{s} ds\right) $$ where $r_{s} = \sigma W_{s}$ and $W_{s}$ is a standard 1-d Brownian motion. $\sigma$ is assumed to be constant.
and the solution is, $$\sigma^2 (b-a)^2(a+\frac{b-a}{3})$$
if I were to calculate, I would proceed like this: $$ Var\left (\int_{a}^{b} r_{s} d_{s}\right) = Var \left (\sigma \int_{0}^{b} \int_{0}^{s} dW_{s} d_{s} - \sigma \int_{0}^{a} \int_{0}^{s} dW_{s} d_{s}\right) $$
How do we proceed further?