I need to calculate an integral by the saddle point method.
$I=\int_0^\infty dt\, f(t)\, e^{i S(t)}$.
Notice that in my case $S(t)$ has not the typical form $S(t)=\lambda g(t)$, with a parameter $\lambda \rightarrow \infty$ . Instead, it has the form $S(t)=\int_0^t h(t′)dt′$, and grows continuously with the parameter $t$.
I can find analytically the point $t_s$ for which $\frac{\partial S(t_s)}{\partial t}=0$.
Nevertheless $\frac{\partial^2 S(t_s)}{\partial t^2}=0$ , as well. This is a problem because the method is only valid for $\frac{\partial^2 S(t_s)}{\partial t^2}\neq0$. If I think of the saddle point method as a simple Taylor expansion of the argument of the exponential to second order, I feel tempted to write the saddle point solution as
$I^{sp}\approx f(t_s)e^{i S(t_s)}$,
instead of
$I^{sp}\approx \frac{1}{\sqrt{\partial^2 S(t_s)/\partial t^2}} f(t_s)e^{i S(t_s)}$
i.e., just evaluate the phase at $t_s$ but do not use the second derivative with respect to $t$ in the denominator. Is it correct? Or I should go to order $>2$ when the second derivative is zero?