I'm trying to understand this claim on page 205 of "The Probabilistic Method" by Alon and Spencer:
Set $p=c/n$. A key observation is that $Z_1 \sim Bin[n-1, c/n]$ approaches (in $n$) the Poisson distribution with mean $c$. Further, in a more rough sense, the same holds for $Z_t$ as long as $N_{t-1} \sim o(n)$.
Here $Z_t \sim Bin[N_{t-1}, c/n]$. So if $N_{t-1} \sim o(n)$ then wouldn't $Bin[N_{t-1}, c/n]$ approach a Poisson distribution with mean $0$? What am I missing here?