Following this question, can someone help me understand (even better with some basic visualization) the meaning of "saturation" when it comes to partition and its counterpart (equivalence relation)? Does saturation mean that there is a union of equivalence classes that make up the entire set S or just part of it?
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1The linked Question seems to define "saturated subset" in a clear way. Perhaps you should take the initiative to give an example to illustrate what is unclear. It means that "there is a union of equivalence classes that make up [exactly] the entire" subset $S$ of the possibly larger set $X$ for which a partition (equiv. an equivalence relation) is given. – hardmath Mar 11 '19 at 16:20
1 Answers
Let $X$ be a set and let $R$ be an equivalence relation on $X$. Then, $X$ can be partitioned into pairwise disjoint equivalence classes $\{E_\alpha\}_{\alpha \in I}$ where $I$ is some index set. Now, every $E_\alpha$ is by definition a subset of $X$. So, in symbolic terms, we have $$ X = \bigcup_{\alpha \in I} E_\alpha $$ and $E_\alpha \cap E_\beta = \varnothing$ whenever $\alpha \neq \beta$.
Consider an arbitrary (for now) subset $A$ of $X$. Because $A \subseteq X$, it is clear that $$ A \subseteq \bigcup_{\alpha \in I} E_\alpha. $$ However, $A$ might not be the union of equivalence classes, i.e. it may be impossible to write $$ A = \bigcup_{\alpha \in J} E_\alpha $$ for any subset $J$ of $I$. This is because an equivalence class $E_\alpha$ containing a point $a \in A$ may also contain points from $X \setminus A$.
Next let us assume that $A$ is saturated. The definition of saturation prevents the above from occurring. Namely, it states that $A$ can be expressed exactly as the union of some of these equivalence classes. Put otherwise, the saturation of $A$ ensures that for each $\alpha \in I$, \begin{equation}\label{eq:star}\tag{$\star$} A \cap E_\alpha \neq \varnothing \implies E_\alpha \subseteq A. \end{equation} Therefore, if $A$ is saturated, then an equivalence class of $X$ either contains only points from $A$, or none at all.
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So,
Acan be any arbitrary set that we can call "saturated" as long as it holds the principle that it is composed of one or more equivalence classes ofX? – user10728141 Mar 11 '19 at 16:58 -
It depends what you mean by "composed". Any subset of $X$ will be contained in (but perhaps not equal to) a union of these equivalence classes. If $A$ is saturated, then by definition it must be equal to a union of equivalences classes. – rolandcyp Mar 11 '19 at 16:59
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The condition in $(\star)$ is an equivalent definition of saturation, for instance. – rolandcyp Mar 11 '19 at 17:00