In this link we try to approximate the solution of van der Pol equation using averaging. It goes as follow :
Let $$\ddot V+V=\varepsilon (1-V^2)\dot V.$$
We transform it in $$\begin{cases}\dot V=I\\ \dot I=-V+\varepsilon (1-V^2)I.\end{cases}$$ We do the substitution $$\begin{pmatrix}X\\Y\end{pmatrix}=\begin{pmatrix}\cos t&-\sin t\\ \sin t&\cos t\end{pmatrix}\begin{pmatrix}V\\I\end{pmatrix}.$$ By setting $$f(X,Y,t,\varepsilon )=\begin{pmatrix}-\Big(1-(X\cos t+Y\sin t)^2\Big)(-X\sin t+Y\cos t)\sin t\\ \Big(1-(X\cos t+Y\sin t)^2\Big)(-X\sin t+Y\cos t)\cos t\end{pmatrix},$$ one can compute $$\bar f(X,Y):=\frac{1}{2\pi}\int_0^2\pi f(X,Y,t,0)dt=\frac{1}{8}(4-(X^2+Y^2))\begin{pmatrix}X\\Y\end{pmatrix}.$$ We have that $$\bar f(x,y)=0\iff V^2+I^2=X^2+Y^2=4,$$ which correspon to the limit cycl of the van der Pol oscillator. Set $\tau=X^2+Y^2$, this is an invariant of the flow of the linear equation.
Q1) What does it mean ?
Dropping all information on the phase, one can reduce the averaged equation to $$\dot \tau=\left(1-\frac{\tau}{4}\right)\tau.\tag{E}$$
Q2) How did they get this equation ? I don't really understand the trick since in one way we have a vectorial equation, whereas (E) is just a simple ODE.